That's the subjective part I guess.
VAR, Refs and Linesmen | General Discussion
- Thread starter Samid
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Everything said why the goal didn't stand are just fairy tales. Nothing else.
Lets be honest the no penalty decision was worse IMO/
That's a blatant red card for Carroll IMO. Disgraceful 'challenge'.
Salah's IMO was deemed to be more him intercepting a 'pass'. This one is just fired at him with little chance of him being able to control the ball so doesn't reset the phase of play.
"If the pass, attempt to gain possession or clearance by the player in control of the ball is inaccurate or unsuccessful, this does not negate the fact that the player 'deliberately played' the ball."
That's what the rule says. He deliberately touched the ball. Then they add all this subjective shit like time to move, react etc.. so they can qualify it and make it up as they go along.
Can we just go back to if you were offside when the ball was played, you were offside? No fcuking about with new phases, deliberate touches or any of that shite.
Numpty iin the VAR room desperately trying to find how to rule out Casemiro's goal.
This is where it’s subjective then, because he could have cleared it just fine in my opinion, he attempted to and played it poorly.
Hmm perhaps, I still don't think thats right, Salah one the defender was properly stretched and had to act because of Salahs run, and this one the defender took a positive action to clear a cross.
I actually think both should be classed as offside. Inconsistency drives me insane, that Dale Johnson post seems to explain it quite well.
Like Rashford v City, Salah didn't interfere with his ability to do so though.
Bruno in an offside position. Hmm how can we blah he’s interfering?
But Salah scored it! Ah I dunno anymore
Not even a replay of the Carroll tackle on eriksen. Looked a red to me in real time
The offside one. Where a deliberate attempt to play the ball creates a new phase.
There was a replay and nasty as hell.
Because Toti was deemed to make a deliberate action, resetting the phase of play, making Salah onside.But Salah scored it! Ah I dunno anymore
It wasn't a deliberate play
Must have missed it posting here ha. Was it a red or a yellow?
So did the touch tonight. In fact both clearances were fecking awful. I can’t see a difference between them
But how was that clearance not deliberate? It was a positive action where he cleared it, it didn't just hit him out of nowhere. He just made a hash of it.
I sense that might be where we disagree.
Red now mate
There's a massive difference between the two mate, The ball was fired at the reading defender from close range.
Close? You may watch it again. It was far enough away he altered his stride and moved his leg backwards to get to the ball. It was his choice to play it.
IMO it's more deflected off the Reading player than anything. The Wolves player clearly tried to head it away or to a teammate. Subjective though I guess and I don't think it's a bad decision.
By definition of the word deliberate, it was deliberate. He moved his foot towards the ball.
No mate, he was half asleep and watching Corry with his feet up, and the ball struck him. Poor bloke.
It wasn’t “fired at him”, it was an attempt to play a low ball to the back post. It travelled some. Enough for him to attempt a clearance, that he massively cocked up.
It was close/quick enough for him to not be able to sort his feet out, which made it not a deliberate action.
Is the match thread down for anyone else?
Yes.
Yes
Yes
But to answer your question. ITV4
Just curious, could their goal be called back due to a foul in build up? If you watch replay one of the Reading players is holding Maguire and then full fist of his shirt, when he’s trying to get out to the attacker that actually scored.
I’m not saying it should be disallowed, just curious if that is something that VAR could interject in. Seems like it should because if it was the other way a penalty could be given. Wondering if they could call a goal back on a corner for a foul, as it’s the same result…a goal given or not.
Seriously, this is just my curiousity now at this point of what can be intervened.
I’m not saying it should be disallowed, just curious if that is something that VAR could interject in. Seems like it should because if it was the other way a penalty could be given. Wondering if they could call a goal back on a corner for a foul, as it’s the same result…a goal given or not.
Seriously, this is just my curiousity now at this point of what can be intervened.
Yes if same phase of play and a 'clear and obvious error' in not giving the foul.
One individuals interpretation. We’ve seen goals given for that.
Him not being able to sort his feet out is a consequence of being a shit defender. Not that he couldn’t have done it.
Fairly sure that is the rule.
To be fair could it be close enough to the goal for this to apply? It was just outside the box as well