IhabX7
Full Member
- Joined
- Oct 10, 2006
- Messages
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Is this somehow supposed to justify the horrors inflicted on the Palestinians? Would any of this happen if the Zionist project, orchestrated by European Jews, didn’t come to life? Arabs and Jews tension was never an issue before that.That article is focused on Europe, it doesn’t discuss the condition of Mizrahi Jews except towards the very end which states:
“In Palestine, the British attempted to prevent immigration. The foundation of the State of Israel on 14 May 1948 changed this situation. However, most countries of the Middle East declared Jews an undesirable minority, partially already during the Israeli War of Independence. As a result, the centuries-old settlement centres in North Africa and the Eastern Mediterranean disappeared from the map within a few months. Jewish communities in Damascus, Bagdad and Yemen, which were now subject to rapid and sometimes violent dissolution, could even be traced back to the pre-Christian era.”
I actually think that is an overstatement/simplification of what happened. But in any case, there is nothing in the article to support the claim that most Mizrahim went to Europe and America for economic reasons. The record is very clear regarding where most of them ended up, to the extent that it is believed that a majority of Israeli Jews today have at least a partial Mizrahi heritage (in contrast to American Jews who are overwhelmingly Ashkenazi with a heritage traceable to Central and Eastern Europe). The exact/immediate reasons for their departure from the Arab lands is more varied. It is true that economic factors played a role in certain contexts, as did ideological impulses (the draw of Zionism). But the growth of anti-Jewish hostility in Arab countries in the interwar and immediate post-war years, combined with the ready availability of a state willing to accept them, was the probably the most important factor.
(As an aside, I struggle to see how the account given in the article supports the ‘normalization thesis’ - perhaps I’m missing something but apart from the 19th/early twentieth centuries, it seems that most of the mass Jewish migration discussed was indeed in response to persecution and/or the threat of violence).
Were the promises of European Jews to Mizrahi Jews kept? Were they equal upon arrival? Weren’t there segregated communities of white Jews and “black” Jews? Weren’t they thrown in the deserts wanting to go back to Morocco and Algeria?
No matter how you look at it, this is a European colonial project backed by the biggest colonial powers.