While I admit you can argue there's a moral distinction between racially abusing a black man because you hate black people and racially abusing a black man because you're hoping it will give you an edge in a game of football, I think you can also argue that the perpetrator in either scenario is a cnut of the highest order.
If said cnut then refuses to shake the hand of the black man before their next game of football after being punished for said racial abuse well then, draw your own conclusions...
I don't even think it's that distinguishable morally, both are cnutish acts which turn out hurting the victim and are embarrassing for everyone around them who has to witness that shit. What I think can be argued is whether there's a deeper meaning to it, i.e., can you draw any conclusion as to whether someone is racially prejudiced from "just" that or not? I think it's a much simpler question.
You look at one sentence from Donald Sterling famous remarks, and yes, you can tell that is a prejudiced man. From perhaps someone who never insulted a black man to his face. It exposes how he thinks. I'd say the only information you can glean from Suarez's remarks is that he's uneducated, dumb and a cnut. They don't add any insight into whether he's a racist or not, at least in my opinion.