There is a difference to driving with relative impairment and being drunk. Saying someone got 'caught driving drunk' incinuates something with bigger implications. I simply added context, which was he was stopped while in the category of being relatively impaired.
When did I say the words 0.6 is not an automatic criminal offense?? I stated being caught with 0.06 is ' not a criminal offence but an administrative one' he will face a 1 month driving ban and pay a 500€ fine. A criminal offence is 1.1 mg and above of alcohol per mm in the system.
Please read this german legal document to get a better understanding of the law before you call me wrong.
https://se-legal.de/criminal-defens...-and-legal-alcohol-limits-in-germany/?lang=en
Have a nice evening.
"German legal document" and the guy links a lawyer's superficial writeup on their own website.
You've also managed to misread my comment about why 0.6‰ does not mean that it cannot be a criminal charge and would only be a fine.
For starters, the legal definition of drunk driving is rather loosely defined as
being unable to safely operate a vehicle in traffic due to the incluence of alcoholic beverages or other intoxicating substances. You'll note that the actual text of the law does not refer to any hard numbers, neither does it refer to any paragraph that does.
Then there are the definitions of relative and absolute unfitness to drive. Those are actually not written in any hard law, but were defined by court judgements.
In their ruling from 1990/06/28,
4 StR 297/90, the BGH defined 1.1‰ as the key value at which an operator of a car or motorbike is to be presumed irrefutably as absolutely unfit to drive. At that point it is a definite criminal charge under §316 StGB, no matter how little actual visible impact it has on your driving.
Relative unfitness to drive however is circumstantial. It requires not just a blood alcohol value of at least 0.3‰, but also aggravating circumstances that show that the driver is unfit, for example slurred speech, driving in serpentines, problems with body motor functions like standing, walking straight or impaired hand-eye coordination, reduced pupil reaction, causing an accident etc. If such symptoms show, and an expert witness confirms them to be alcohol-induced, then it is defined as relative unfitness to drive and, again, drunk driving and a crime under §316 StGB if not §315c as well, rather than just an administrative fine. So don't go around telling people that it is only a crime when at/over 1.1‰.
TL;DR: being above 1.1 automatically makes it a crime, but being below 1.1 does not automatically make it not a crime.
Davies, at 0.6‰, could have absolutely had a criminal charge called against him if he had shown any such symptoms. No such thing was observed by the policemen, but Davies was above 0.5‰, thus only the fine.
If you want to discuss the topic further please use PMs, because none of this has any relation to a potential transfer of his so let's not clutter the thread further.
As to the actual topic at hand: currently I'd give it about 50-30-20 odds for Madrid snatching him up, either in the winter window or next summer, him staying at Bayern, or coming to United.
If Madrid pulls out of the race then something like 55-45 in favour of him staying.
While he looks a fair bit happier and more engaged under Kompany, I still struggle to see how his performances this season justify a pay raise anywhere near what he is supposedly asking. He is still not a world beater defensively, and a lot of his offensive potential relies on him having spaces to burst into. In absence of those he still struggles a lot and rarely beats an opponent on technique alone.
I certainly think he'd be an improvement on anything United currently has for the left wide back, but at that price tag I think the club might rather shop elsewhere.