Siorac
Full Member
- Joined
- Sep 1, 2010
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- 23,967
To be absolutely precise: up until that point if the Champions League winner didn't qualify for next year's competition via their league finish, it was left up to the domestic league to decide which team they want to nominate. For example, Real Madrid finished 5th in La Liga in 2000 but won the Champions League and La Liga fecked fourth placed Real Zaragoza without a moment's hesitation.No, they literally made that rule up when Liverpool won the 2005 CL but didn't even manage to finish top 4 in their own league. Would have been embarrassing for them not to have the holders in it the following season.
In 2005, the Premier League didn't want to screw over Everton so Liverpool would have been out but for a massive campaign that saw UEFA relent and allow Liverpool to start in the first qualifying round. Technically they weren't counted as an English club that season, hence getting drawn in the same group as Chelsea. At the same time, UEFA clarified the rule: the CL winner always qualifies for the competition but if they come from an association that already has 4 CL places, that association won't get a 5th slot even if the CL winner doesn't finish in the top 4. Thus if Spurs had finished fourth in 2006 but Arsenal won the CL (neither happened obviously but bear with me), Spurs would have been fecked.
This got changed a few years ago and now the top leagues can have a maximum of five participants. Now the only way the 4th placed team in the Premier League can miss out is if both the Champions League and the Europa League is won by a Premier League club that finishes outside the top 4. Which theoretically could have happened, for example, in 16/17 where Arsenal were really close to a CL win while we won the Europa League. And by really close I mean they shipped ten in two games against Bayern in the round of 16.