Payment schedule and amortisation have nothing to do with each other, assuming a deal is agreed between clubs. Payment schedules only become relevant in the event of cash flow problems, which doesn't typically apply to most large PL clubs (Man United being an outlier in this case given the parasitic nature of their owners pre-sale).
The basic difference though is when a buyout clause is actually exercised is that the deal becomes a more complicated transaction - whereas in the event of a normal transfer it's a deal between two clubs who are held to the same accounting practices, in the event of a buyout clause it's technically the player who buys himself out of the deal and the club then reimburses him. This is thus considered a one-off payment for the buying club's books and it cannot be amortised.
I’m aware that payment schedule and amortisation have nothing to do with each other…
Transfer fees were amortised according to initial contract length well before FFP even existed. That's why it it bears no relation to the payment schedule.
Indeed, the entirety of my post is based upon this fact that we both agree upon. I’m actually kind of confused how anyone could read what I wrote and have missed that.
My question is
why there is apparently a difference in amortisation when a release clause is paid upfront when there has never been any relation to payment schedule.
Consider, if Brighton demanded £100m paid over a few years, Chelsea could counter with an offer of £80m to be paid in an immediate single payment. That could theoretically be so beneficial for Brighton’s cash flow that they accept. So imagine the deal goes through and Caicedo signs a 7 year contract.
In this scenario, for accounting purposes, Caicedo’s fee is amortised over 7 years. For FFP purposes, it is amortised over 5 years as that loophole has closed.
But if that single payment was technically to Caicedo to pay Brighton, why does the amortisation change? I can see why there would be tax implications.
The reason a transfer fee is amortised is because it’s technically the purchase of a player’s registration, which by its very nature is a depreciating asset as it’s inherently linked to the length of the players contract. In reality, every transfer involves the “release” of the player under contract. A release clause merely sets a fee in advance.
By extension, a buyout clause is merely a release clause paid by the player to their current club with funds held in escrow from their new club. Why would this have any effect on amortisation?
Fair enough if it doesn’t. Or if you don’t know.