Champions League record if VAR had been around since 1955, according to IFFHS (Madrid 5, United 4) | IFFHS has nothing to do with it

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Which extra one would we have won then? 2004? How do they know we’d win the final?
 
Pretty cool, sounds like a bunch of bullshit to me though
 
TheReligion said:
Nani red and Porto one.

Both not the final though!
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I'm kind of surprised its only one to be honest. Feel like we had loads of matches against teams like Borussia Dortmund in 97 or so where we really should have won and any tiny change could have or should have pushed us over the line. Bayer Leverkusen, that Real match, Bayern under Van Gaal and having rafael sent off.
The Borrusia match in particular felt weird and like we should have beaten them comfortably but just couldn't score.
 
Load of tosh. VAR is here now and not guaranteed to get decisions right.
And in my view, you change a decision in a game, it may well change the outcome in a different way.
 
caid said:
I'm kind of surprised its only one to be honest. Feel like we had loads of matches against teams like Borussia Dortmund in 97 or so where we really should have won and any tiny change could have or should have pushed us over the line. Bayer Leverkusen, that Real match, Bayern under Van Gaal and having rafael sent off.
The Borrusia match in particular felt weird and like we should have beaten them comfortably but just couldn't score.
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I imagine it's simply based on whether the team that ultimately won the tournament would lost the final or any knockout round as there's too many variables otherwise, and numerous teams who lost in the knockout rounds could be argued they "would" have won. So for example Bayern in 09/10 wouldn't count, as Bayern lost to Inter anyway. Leverkusen lost to Real in the final in 2002. Dortmund did win it in 97 though, so it might be one of our 2 "missing" titles.

Overall, it's just a shame SAF "only" won two CLs. For 20 or so years of dominance in the PL, it's a below expected return. There's many reasons why. Luck may be one reason, but tactical decisions and composure and skill are also reasons. Also possibly the foreign player rule in the early 90s although I was a bit too young then.
 
1969 against AC Milan in the Semi final 2nd leg at Old Trafford. Ref failed to award United a 2nd goal, despite the ball being well over the line and in the net.
 
Is that even a real account? had a quick look on their website and there's nothing about any such thing. It's not like there's any way to even calculate this unless it's the final and a team loses directly because of bad decisions.
 
Amir said:
Not that it matters, but there was a huge gap between the disallowed goal and Porto's goal.
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Not in my memory which is rubbish and inaccurate. Probably the same with Dortmund.
 
That's not the official IFFHS account, this is:

https://x.com/iffhs_media

This is one of the posts from the account posted in OP:



It's obviously a BS account. No way anyone can do such an analysis on referring decisions.
 
UnofficialDevil said:
The Champions League record if VAR had been around since 1955, according to IFFHS

We would have 4.
Madrid would have 5 instead of 15!

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I‘ll close the thread if that alright with you, I think troll accounts with made up news don’t deserve the extra exposure.
 
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